"But if it is possible to use software in such a way that others lose their freedom to exercise those rights, is this really the standard we should be holding?"
Please turn this "if" into something plausible. How could anyone's use of free software cause others to lose their freedom to use free software?
trying to fabricate a popper "paradox"?
Please turn this "if" into something plausible. How could anyone's use of free software cause others to lose their freedom to use free software?