I feel like everyone is completely disregarding the fact the individual referred to here was enslaved as a prostitute by Epstein at the time and as such any sexual act committed by her under contract with Jeffrey Epstein or by the order of him or his inferiors in his sex trafficking organization was nonconsensual. It’s nauseating to me that you would quibble over the meaning of the word assault (every definition of which implies violence as it always violates consent / freedom) when the event such heinous acts of violence including slavery. The only argument that could justify RMS’s position would be if Minsky was truly unaware that the individual was not consenting. I do t know the situation, so I can’t claim whether it’s true or false.